Intellectual Property - INDIA
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  • Intellectual Property: Patent, Design, Trademark, Copyright
  • The Patent Act 1970
    • Section 1
    • Section 2
    • Section 3
    • Section 4
    • Section 6
    • Section 7
    • Section 8
    • Section 9
    • Section 10
    • Section 11
    • Section 11A
    • Section 11B
    • Section 12
    • Section 13
    • Section 14
    • Section 15
    • Section 16
    • Section 17
    • Section 18
    • Section 19
    • Section 20
    • Section 21
    • Section 25
    • Section 26
    • Section 28
    • Section 29
    • Section 30
    • Section 31
    • Section 32
    • Section 33
    • Section 34
    • Section 35
    • Section 36
    • Section 37
    • Section 38
    • Section 39
    • Section 40
    • Section 41
    • Section 42
    • Section 43
    • Section 44
    • Section 45
    • Section 46
    • Section 47
    • Section 48
    • Section 49
    • Section 50
    • Section 51
    • Section 52
    • Section 53
    • Section 54
    • Section 55
    • Section 56
    • Section 57
    • Section 58
    • Section 59
    • Section 60
    • Section 61
    • Section 62
    • Section 63
    • Section 64
    • Section 65
    • Section 66
    • Section 67
    • Section 68
    • Section 69
    • Section 70
    • Section 71
    • Section 72
    • Section 73
    • Section 74
    • Section 75
    • Section 76
    • Section 77
    • Section 78
    • Section 79
    • Section 80
    • Section 81
    • Section 82
    • Section 83
    • Section 84
    • Section 85
    • Section 86
    • Section 87
    • Section 88
    • Section 89
    • Section 90
    • Section 91
    • Section 92
    • Section 92A
    • Section 93
    • Section 94
    • Section 99
    • Section 100
    • Section 101
    • Section 102
    • Section 103
    • Section 104
    • Section 104A
    • Section 105
    • Section 106
    • Section 107
    • Section 107A
    • Section 108
    • Section 109
    • Section 110
    • Section 111
    • Section 113
    • Section 114
    • Section 115
    • Section 116
    • Section 117
    • Section 117A
    • Section 117B
    • Section 117C
    • Section 117D
    • Section 117E
    • Section 117F
    • Section 117G
    • Section 117H
    • Section 118
    • Section 119
    • Section 120
    • Section 122
    • Section 123
    • Section 124
    • Section 124A
    • Section 124B
    • Section 125
    • Section 126
    • Section 127
    • Section 128
    • Section 129
    • Section 130
    • Section 131
    • Section 132
    • Section 133
    • Section 134
    • Section 135
    • Section 136
    • Section 137
    • Section 138
    • Section 139
    • Section 140
    • Section 141
    • Section 142
    • Section 143
    • Section 144
    • Section 145
    • Section 146
    • Section 147
    • Section 148
    • Section 149
    • Section 150
    • Section 151
    • Section 153
    • Section 154
    • Section 155
    • Section 156
    • Section 157
    • Section 157A
    • Section 158
    • Section 159
    • Section 160
    • Section 162
  • The Patent Rules 2003
    • Rule 1
    • Rule 2
    • Rule 3
    • Rule 4
    • Rule 5
    • Rule 6
    • Rule 7
    • Rule 8
    • Rule 9
    • Rule 10
    • Rule 11
    • Rule 12
    • Rule 13
    • Rule 14
    • Rule 15
    • Rule 16
    • Rule 17
    • Rule 18
    • Rule 19
    • Rule 19A
    • Rule 19B
    • Rule 19C
    • Rule 19D
    • Rule 19E
    • Rule 19F
    • Rule 19G
    • Rule 19H
    • Rule 19I
    • Rule 19J
    • Rule 19K
    • Rule 19L
    • Rule 19M
    • Rule 19N
    • Rule 20
    • Rule 21
    • Rule 22
    • Rule 23
    • Rule 24
    • Rule 24A
    • Rule 24B
    • Rule 24C
    • Rule 25
    • Rule 26
    • Rule 27
    • Rule 28
    • Rule 28A
    • Rule 29
    • Rule 30
    • Rule 31
    • Rule 32
    • Rule 33
    • Rule 34
    • Rule 35
    • Rule 36
    • Rule 37
    • Rule 55
    • Rule 55A
    • Rule 56
    • Rule 57
    • Rule 58
    • Rule 59
    • Rule 60
    • Rule 61
    • Rule 62
    • Rule 63
    • Rule 63A
    • Rule 66
    • Rule 67
    • Rule 68
    • Rule 69
    • Rule 70
    • Rule 71
    • Rule 72
    • Rule 74
    • Rule 74A
    • Rule 75
    • Rule 76
    • Rule 77
    • Rule 78
    • Rule 79
    • Rule 80
    • Rule 81
    • Rule 82
    • Rule 83
    • Rule 84
    • Rule 85
    • Rule 86
    • Rule 87
    • Rule 88
    • Rule 90
    • Rule 91
    • Rule 92
    • Rule 93
    • Rule 94
    • Rule 95
    • Rule 96
    • Rule 97
    • Rule 98
    • Rule 99
    • Rule 100
    • Rule 101
    • Rule 102
    • Rule 103
    • Rule 103A
    • Rule 104
    • Rule 105
    • Rule 106
    • Rule 107
    • Rule 108
    • Rule 109
    • Rule 110
    • Rule 111
    • Rule 111A
    • Rule 112
    • Rule 113
    • Rule 114
    • Rule 115
    • Rule 116
    • Rule 117
    • Rule 118
    • Rule 119
    • Rule 120
    • Rule 121
    • Rule 121A
    • Rule 122
    • Rule 123
    • Rule 124
    • Rule 125
    • Rule 126
    • Rule 127
    • Rule 128
    • Rule 129
    • Rule 129A
    • Rule 130
    • Rule 131
    • Rule 132
    • Rule 133
    • Rule 134
    • Rule 135
    • Rule 136
    • Rule 137
    • Rule 138
    • Rule 139
  • The Design Act 2000
    • Section 1
    • Section 2
    • Section 3
    • Section 4
    • Section 5
    • Section 6
    • Section 7
    • Section 8
    • Section 9
    • Section 10
    • Section 11
    • Section 12
    • Section 13
    • Section 14
    • Section 15
    • Section 16
    • Section 17
    • Section 18
    • Section 19
    • Section 20
    • Section 21
    • Section 22
    • Section 23
    • Section 24
    • Section 25
    • Section 26
    • Section 27
    • Section 28
    • Section 29
    • Section 30
    • Section 31
    • Section 32
    • Section 33
    • Section 34
    • Section 35
    • Section 36
    • Section 37
    • Section 38
    • Section 39
    • Section 40
    • Section 41
    • Section 42
    • Section 43
    • Section 44
    • Section 45
    • Section 46
    • Section 47
    • Section 48
  • The Copyright Act 1957
    • Section 1
    • Section 2
    • Section 3
    • Section 4
    • Section 5
    • Section 6
    • Section 7
    • Section 8
    • Section 9
    • Section 10
    • Section 13
    • Section 14
    • Section 15
    • Section 16
    • Section 17
    • Section 18
    • Section 19
    • Section 19A
    • Section 20
    • Section 21
    • Section 22
    • Section 23
    • Section 24
    • Section 26
    • Section 27
    • Section 28
    • Section 28A
    • Section 29
    • Section 30
    • Section 30A
    • Section 31
    • Section 31A
    • Section 31B
    • Section 31C
    • Section 31D
    • Section 32
    • Section 32A
    • Section 32B
    • Section 33
    • Section 33A
    • Section 34
    • Section 35
    • Section 36
    • Section 36A
    • Section 37
    • Section 38
    • Section 38A
    • Section 38B
    • Section 39
    • Section 39A
    • Section 40
    • Section 40A
    • Section 41
    • Section 42
    • Section 42A
    • Section 43
    • Section 44
    • Section 45
    • Section 46
    • Section 47
    • Section 48
    • Section 49
    • Section 50
    • Section 50A
    • Section 51
    • Section 52
    • Section 52A
    • Section 53
    • Section 53A
    • Section 54
    • Section 55
    • Section 56
    • Section 57
    • Section 58
    • Section 59
    • Section 60
    • Section 61
    • Section 62
    • Section 63
    • Section 63A
    • Section 63B
    • Section 64
    • Section 65
    • Section 65A
    • Section 65B
    • Section 66
    • Section 67
    • Section 68
    • Section 68A
    • Section 69
    • Section 70
    • Section 71
    • Section 72
    • Section 73
    • Section 74
    • Section 75
    • Section 76
    • Section 77
    • Section 78
    • Section 79
  • The Trademark Act 1999
    • Section 1
    • Section 2
    • Section 3
    • Section 4
    • Section 5
    • Section 6
    • Section 7
    • Section 8
    • Section 9
    • Section 10
    • Section 11
    • Section 12
    • Section 13
    • Section 14
    • Section 15
    • Section 16
    • Section 17
    • Section 18
    • Section 19
    • Section 20
    • Section 21
    • Section 22
    • Section 23
    • Section 24
    • Section 25
    • Section 26
    • Section 27
    • Section 28
    • Section 29
    • Section 30
    • Section 31
    • Section 32
    • Section 33
    • Section 34
    • Section 35
    • Section 36
    • Section 36A
    • Section 36B
    • Section 36C
    • Section 36D
    • Section 36E
    • Section 36F
    • Section 36G
    • Section 37
    • Section 38
    • Section 39
    • Section 40
    • Section 41
    • Section 42
    • Section 43
    • Section 44
    • Section 45
    • Section 46
    • Section 47
    • Section 48
    • Section 49
    • Section 50
    • Section 51
    • Section 52
    • Section 53
    • Section 54
    • Section 55
    • Section 56
    • Section 57
    • Section 58
    • Section 59
    • Section 60
    • Section 61
    • Section 62
    • Section 63
    • Section 64
    • Section 65
    • Section 66
    • Section 67
    • Section 68
    • Section 69
    • Section 70
    • Section 71
    • Section 72
    • Section 73
    • Section 74
    • Section 75
    • Section 76
    • Section 77
    • Section 78
    • Section 91
    • Section 94
    • Section 97
    • Section 98
    • Section 101
    • Section 102
    • Section 103
    • Section 104
    • Section 105
    • Section 106
    • Section 107
    • Section 108
    • Section 109
    • Section 110
    • Section 111
    • Section 112
    • Section 113
    • Section 114
    • Section 115
    • Section 116
    • Section 117
    • Section 118
    • Section 119
    • Section 120
    • Section 121
    • Section 122
    • Section 123
    • Section 124
    • Section 125
    • Section 126
    • Section 127
    • Section 128
    • Section 129
    • Section 130
    • Section 131
    • Section 132
    • Section 133
    • Section 134
    • Section 135
    • Section 136
    • Section 137
    • Section 138
    • Section 139
    • Section 140
    • Section 141
    • Section 142
    • Section 143
    • Section 144
    • Section 145
    • Section 146
    • Section 147
    • Section 148
    • Section 149
    • Section 150
    • Section 151
    • Section 152
    • Section 153
    • Section 154
    • Section 155
    • Section 156
    • Section 157
    • Section 158
    • Section 159
  • Patent Case
    • Air Purifier Biomoneta
    • Patentability
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  1. The Patent Rules 2003

Rule 24C

Expedited examination of applications

1 - An applicant may file a request for expedited examination in Form 18A along with the fee as specified in the first schedule only by electronic transmission duly authenticated within the period prescribed in rule 24B on any of the following grounds, namely:

1(a) - that India has been indicated as the competent International Searching Authority or elected as an International Preliminary Examining Authority in the corresponding international application; or

1(b) - that the applicant is a startup; or

1(c) - that the applicant is a small entity; or

1(d) - (d) that if the applicant is a natural person or in the case of joint applicants, all the applicants are natural persons, then the applicant or at least one of the applicants is a female; or

1(e) - that the applicant is a department of the Government; or

1(f) - that the applicant is an institution established by a Central, Provincial or State Act, which is owned or controlled by the Government; or

1(g) - that the applicant is a Government company as defined in clause (45) of section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013 (18 of 2013); or

1(h) - that the applicant is an institution wholly or substantially financed by the Government;

Explanation - For the purpose of this clause, the term 'substantially financed' shall have the same meaning as in the Explanation to sub-section (1) of section 14 of the Comptroller and Auditor General's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971(56 of 1971); or

1(i) - that the application pertains to a sector which is notified by the Central Government on the basis of a request from the head of a department of the Central Government.: Provided that public comments are invited before any such notification; or

1(j) - that the applicant is eligible under an arrangement for processing a patent application pursuant to an agreement between Indian Patent Office and a foreign Patent Office.

Explanation - The patentability of patent applications filed under clause (j) above will be in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Act.

2 - A request for examination filed under rule 24B may be converted to a request for expedited examination under sub-rule (1) of rule 24C by paying the relevant fees and submitting requisite documents as required under sub-rule (1).

3 - Except where the application has already been published under sub-section (2) of section 11A or a request for publication under rule 24A has already been filed, a request for expedited examination shall be accompanied by a request for publication under rule 24A.

4 - Where the request for expedited examination does not comply with the requirements of this rule, such a request shall be processed in accordance with the provisions contained in rule 24B, with an intimation to the applicant, and shall be deemed to have been filed on the date on which the request for expedited examination was filed.

5 - The Controller shall refer the request for expedited examination along with the application and specification and other documents to the examiner, in respect of the applications where the request for expedited examination has been received, in the order of filing of such requests. Provided that a request for expedited examination under this rule filed by a startup or small entity shall not be questioned merely on the ground that the startup or small entity, having filed an application for a patent, ceases to be a startup or small entity due to the lapse of the period during which it is recognised by the competent authority, or its turnover subsequently crosses the financial threshold limit as notified by the competent authority.

6 - The period within which the examiner shall make the report under sub-section (2) of section 12, shall ordinarily be one month but not exceeding two months from the date of reference of the application to him by the Controller.

7 - The period within which the Controller shall dispose of the report of the examiner shall be one month from the date of receipt of such report by the Controller.

8 - A first statement of objections along with any document, if required, shall be issued by the Controller to the applicant or his authorised agent within fifteen days from the date of disposal of the report of examiner by the Controller.

9 - Reply to the first statement of objections and subsequent reply, if any, in respect of an application where the request for expedited examination was filed, shall be processed in the order in which such reply for such application is received.

10 - The time for putting an application in order for grant under section 21 shall be six months from the date on which the first statement of objections is issued to the applicant.

11 - The time for putting an application in order for grant under section 21, as prescribed in sub-rule (10) may be further extended for a period of three months on a request for extension made in Form 4 along with the prescribed fee, made to the Controller before the expiry of the period specified under sub-rule (10).

12 - The Controller shall dispose of the application within a period of three months from the date of receipt of the last reply to the first statement of objections or within a period of three months from the last date to put the application in order for grant under section 21 of the Act, whichever is earlier: Provided that this time limit shall not be applicable in case of pre-grant opposition.

13 - Notwithstanding anything contained this rule, the Controller may limit the number of requests for expedited examination to be received during the year by way of a notice to be published in the official journal.

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Last updated 1 year ago